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Why are you making stuff up?
What does Florida’s fuckery have to do with independents?
I don’t understand that conclusion. According to their table there, Gore lost by ~550 votes and Nader had over 90,000 votes. Do you really think those votes would have been evenly split?
I know reading is harder than looking at the picture, but give it a shot and you will have your answer. Of course, you won’t. You will only cherry pick the things that you think will help your case. Problem is, no one believes you, and you aren’t going to convince anyone otherwise
Edit: I did a bunch reading for you
https://www.latimes.com/opinion/readersreact/la-le-al-gore-ralph-nader-2000-20160527-snap-story.html
I did read the link. And it still seems like a ton of mental gymnastics to ignore the vote totals.
I can give you the material but not the IQ
Is it really that hard to conceptualize 90,000 > 550? Or that green party voters back then were much closer to democratic voters than republican? You have to ignore the most obvious fact in order to contrive others.
You have literally ignored every other point I have posted, keep screaming the same thing as if somehow the popular vote has ever won a presidency
Screaming? I thought I was typing…
Uhh, that’s exactly how it works per state. The most popular vote in that state gets the electoral votes for that state.
Too bad
NaderFlorida didn’t act in good faith.