• kadu@lemmy.world
    link
    fedilink
    arrow-up
    8
    arrow-down
    2
    ·
    2 years ago

    If they have an uterus, why not? I’d want to give menstrual items to whoever needed them, actually.

    • wipasoda@lemmy.dbzer0.com
      link
      fedilink
      arrow-up
      1
      arrow-down
      5
      ·
      2 years ago

      that’s what I meant. You wouldn’t give them to whoever not needed them. I called them man, you called them people without uterus. In other words, you don’t want to treat all equally.

      • kadu@lemmy.world
        link
        fedilink
        arrow-up
        7
        arrow-down
        1
        ·
        2 years ago

        No, I did not. And no, there’s no equivalence here.

        I claimed menstrual products should go to people with uteruses - men or women.

        • wipasoda@lemmy.dbzer0.com
          link
          fedilink
          arrow-up
          1
          arrow-down
          1
          ·
          2 years ago

          there’s no equivalence here.

          So you would give menstrual products to people with a uterus but don’t say anything about not giving menstrual products to people without a uterus?

          But would you? If you do not, wouldn’t that make you treat people unequally, in some sense?

          • kadu@lemmy.world
            link
            fedilink
            arrow-up
            3
            ·
            2 years ago

            You’re moving the goalposts and definitions, purposely.

            I claimed no two men are alike - but we treat them equally. The purpose of this argument is claiming gender wouldn’t be enough to treat men and women differently.

            You mentioned menstrual products - I’m saying they should be distributed based on need, regardless of gender.

            I’m explicitly explaining things now, even though I’m sure you actually do understand from the very beginning, because your lazy attempt at definition-trolling is getting boring.